Not necessarily. It depends on the circumstances surrounding the signature of your divorce agreement. For example, on November 18^th 2024 The Family Court in Tel Aviv (Family Case # 18783-07-21) ordered to strike out a plea filed by an ex-wife, because the divorce agreement between her and her ex-husband, was achieved through a mediation process. The Court there stated that it had no authority to examine her claims, because the divorce agreement was the result of mediation and not of a regular legal process. Meaning, the court has no way to assert whether within the mediation process the sides have agreed to only divide certain parts of their rights in property and not other parts.